How does this converge by squeeze theorem? I can see that if $ 0^x$ as x goes to infinity is = 0. But what about the otherside? How do we show that when $ -1 \lt r \lt 0$ , that r = 0 as x goes to infinity?

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# Show $r^n$ converges using squeeze theorem for $-1 \leq r \leq 0$

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How does this converge by squeeze theorem? I can see that if $ 0^x$ as x goes to infinity is = 0. But what about the otherside? How do we show that when $ -1 \lt r \lt 0$ , that r = 0 as x goes to infinity?

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