I’m reading the definition of polynomial time reducible:

Let $ L_1, L_2$ be two language. If $ L_1$ is polynomial time reducible to $ L_2$ then exists $ f:\{0,1\}^*$ s.t. $ \forall x\in\{0,1\}^*$ $ $ x\in L_1\iff f(x)\in L_2$ $

For me this means the $ L_1$ may be bigger (in cardinality) than $ L_2$ , but $ L_2$ is more difficult since $ L_1$ can be solved after reduced to $ L_2$ ?