Does this errata allow vision out of an area of Darkness?

I thought this was a moot point, settled and done, but a recent errata opens up the question for me again.

Vision and Light (p. 183). A heavily obscured area doesn’t blind you, but you are effectively blinded when you try to see something obscured by it.

This corrects the following rule:

A heavily obscured area–such as darkness, opaque fog, or dense foliage–blocks vision entirely. A creature effectively suffers from the blinded condition (see appendix PH-A) when trying to see something in that area.

Now, this errata implies to me that being within a heavily obscured area does not prevent one from seeing OUT of the area, merely from seeing INTO the area. For instance, a rogue in an area of deep shadow would be heavily obscured to the guard standing by the streetlamp, but the rogue could easily see the guard. (Substitute thick foliage and elf for a less light based situation.)
On the other hand, the rogue would be effectively blinded to anything else in the same area of darkness.

So, what in the Darkness spell specifically prevents one from seeing OUT? The only indication I can see is that “A creature with darkvision can’t see THROUGH” it and that doesn’t really convince me. Can Darkness be interpreted as simply a mobile, impenetrable shadow?

How to measure on a grid the area of a sphere area spell or effect centered on a creature?

Per the Wild Magic sorcerer’s Wild Magic Surge table (PHB, p. 104)

07-08: You cast fireball as a 3rd-level spell centered on yourself.

There’s other questionable area spells in that list (grease is a 10 foot square, so your square and which three?), but I’ll focus on spheres like fireball (PHB p. 241):

(…) Each creature in a 20-foot-radius sphere centered on the point must (…)

My problem is, the sources I found so far – including the other answers to similar questions here – talk about measuring spheres from grid square intersections, whereas this clearly talks about it being centered on the unlucky Wild Magic sorcerer. Plus, since it’s a wild magic effect, it doesn’t exactly have a caster that can pick a point of origin. Is there an accepted way to measure an effect like this?

How does the Flaming Sphere spell’s area of effect work?

The description of the flaming sphere in the PHB reads:

Any creature that ends its turn within 5 feet of the sphere must […]

Does this mean flaming sphere affects a sphere with a diameter of 15 feet (5 feet from itself, 10 feet towards either direction)?

Also, does ramming the sphere require placing the sphere at the location of the enemy directly, or will it still do damage as long as the creature is in the affected range of the spell?

Can Gaseous Form be used to expand the area affected by Cloak of Flies

A warlock activates the Cloak of Flies invocation, optionally casts Armor of Agathys, then casts Gaseous Form. Cloak of Flies is not a spell, does not have an attack roll, and persists until dismissed. Therefore it should do damage to any other creature within 5 feet even when the warlock is a misty cloud.

Can the warlock expand the misty cloud so as to damage multiple targets and how large an area could be covered?

For reference,

Cloak of Flies You can surround yourself with a magical aura that extends 5 feet from you in every direction, but not through total cover. Any other creature that starts its turn in the aura takes poison damage equal to your Charisma modifier.

Gaseous Form You transform a willing creature you touch, along with everything it’s wearing and carrying, into a misty cloud for the duration. While in the form of a misty cloud, the target can’t attack or cast spells.

Is damage rolled for once per area of effect spell, or rolled once per target?

I’m trying to figure out whether you roll damage for AOE spells as a group or individually in the Fantasy AGE system. I can’t find any explicit mention in the rulebook.

For example, the spell flame blast creates a 8×2 area of fire. Anyone in that area takes 2d6+1 damage unless they make a successful Acrobatics test in which case they take 1d6+1.

In this case there are at least two damage rolls going on, but it’s unclear if there are just two separate values for damage pre-rolled for the whole group, or if damage for each target is rolled separately.

If anyone can point me towards some applicable rules (or confirm that this is something the GM has to rule on) that would be wonderful.

Can you turn a spell into an area spell?

Let me preface this by saying I’m pretty much a complete newb when it comes to the Vancian spellcasting subsystem, so sorry if this one has an obvious answer I just don’t know about.

Is there a way to make a spell that’s not an AoE… into an AoE? Specifically, I’d like to be able to use telekinesis with the Eldritch Theurge class feature Spellblast, which lets you add an area of effect spell to your Eldritch Blast.

If I used Wish to become immune to being seen via Truesight and stand in an area of magical darkness, can a creature with Truesight see me?

As the title says, does standing inside an area of magical darkness, while being immune from detection through truesight (not the spell, but the monster ability), render me unseen from a creature that has truesight?

On the one hand, the answer might be yes. I am undetectable by truesight now, and truesight is what is enabling the creature to see me.

On the other hand, the answer might be no. Truesight allows the creature to see through the magical darkness and I am not actually invisible.

Which is the answer that has more adherence to the rules as written? Or is this a gray area in the rules?

Why is targeting an adjacent attacker with a 5 foot cube area attack considered a ranged attack?

An opponent has moved adjacent up into a character’s face and swung at them. On their turn, in retaliation, the character would like to attack back with their favoured cube area attack, made at the size of a 5 foot sized cube to be ergonomic. Oddly the rules as written (see below) seems to qualify this attack as a ranged attack even though the target is adjacent and every other area attack also containing the attacker would not. Is this an oversight, an intentional design decision, or is there anything I’m overlooking that makes this ruling invalid?

The rules leading me to this conclusion appears here:

Ranged Attacks in Melee

Any time you make a ranged attack and there is an enemy within melee reach of you, you have disadvantage 1 on your attack roll. Area attacks are considered ranged attacks if the area does not include at least one space adjacent to the attacker.

The 5 foot cube placed on the attacker’s square does not include at least one space adjacent to the attacker but it does include attacker’s square itself which intuitively feels like it shouldn’t be a ranged attack as well as other area attacks. RAW however, this means it’s a ranged attack and imposes disadvantage 1. To me a more intuitive ruling and writing of it would be:

Ranged Attacks in Melee

Any time you make a ranged attack and there is an enemy within melee reach of you, you have disadvantage 1 on your attack roll. Area attacks are considered ranged attacks if the area does not include the attacker or at least one space adjacent to the attacker. (changes italicized)

Are there existing rules or other evidence the designer’s intention was for this scenario to be a ranged attack? If so, why only 5 foot cubes and not every other area effect (they have to include a square adjacent to the opponent as well)? Is there perhaps another mechanical reason I can’t find that this attack should be considered ranged? Is the attack simply supposed to impose disadvantage 1 and being considered ranged is simply a byproduct?

In the case that it shouldn’t be considered ranged (or only considered ranged for the purpose of disadvantage 1), I would like to revise this confusing wording. I have found the Open Legends repository and my intention is to submit a pull request if I understand the rules correctly and this ruling is against the RAI. However, I’m asking my question here first to gain assurance, as I know that I am very new to the system and may be overlooking something.

3D Plotting and optimising on the surface area of a spherical gyroid

*this is an equation of a shperical gyroid emphasized texti want to plot it in mathematica and obtain the shapes like those on the picture below. sinxcosy + sinycosz + sinzcosx = 0 i also want to know the code to use and how i can model it to obtain different surface areas. please i am in urgent need for an answer