Can you cast Speak With Dead on dead undead?

The spell Speak With Dead has the following descriptive text:

You grant the semblance of life and intelligence to a corpse of your choice within range, allowing it to answer the questions you pose. The corpse must still have a mouth and can’t be undead. The spell fails if the corpse was the target of this spell within the last 10 days.

Until the spell ends, you can ask the corpse up to five questions. The corpse knows only what it knew in life, including the languages it knew. Answers are usually brief, cryptic, or repetitive, and the corpse is under no compulsion to offer a truthful answer if you are hostile to it or it recognizes you as an enemy. This spell doesn’t return the creature’s soul to its body, only its animating spirit. Thus, the corpse can’t learn new information, doesn’t comprehend anything that has happened since it died, and can’t speculate about future events. (emphasis mine)

So let’s say my party is tracking someone with knowledge they need, who unbeknownst to them was betrayed by the big bad, killed and turned into a zombie. Obviously in zombie form he can’t be targeted by the spell, because he’s undead.

Once they reduce him to 0 hp (assuming there’s enough of the corpse left to talk with), is he still undead, and therefore unable to be the target of the Speak With Dead spell? Or is he just an ordinary corpse at that point, and this a valid target for the spell? Are dead undead still undead, or are they just dead?

What do I roll to cast a summon with pre-determined base attack bonus?

I am playing a warlock in my current campaign and I selected earthen grasp for one of the invocations. Earthen grasp comes with its own base attack bonus:

Earthen Grasp:

Treat the arm as a Medium creature, with a base attack bonus equal to your caster level and a Strength of 14 +2 per three caster levels (16 at 3rd level, 18 at 6th level, and so on).

Looking at this, it doesn’t seem to require any sort of roll since the strength bonus is always pre-determined. In that case, what would I need to roll in order to summon/cast an earthen grasp?

Can the Shield spell be cast in response to being hit by an invisible enemy?

Let’s say I have a PC with the shield spell. I’m not surprised, and an invisible enemy hits me with an attack. My DM has not yet told me the attack roll number, so I am in a position to cast shield if I choose to.

However, the enemy is invisible, so would I be able to cast shield in response to an attacker I can’t see? Let’s assume the attacker is permanently invisible, like they’re using the greater invisibility spell. On the one hand, the shield spell simply says:

1 Reaction*
* – which you take when you are hit by an attack or targeted by the magic missile spell

There’s no mention of needing to see the creature.

On the other hand, it seems wrong to me that I can react to an attack I can’t see coming.

Are there any rules I’ve missed that would prevent the shield spell from being cast in this scenario?

Does the extra damage from Booming Blade stack if the spell is cast twice on the same target?

The booming blade spell (Sword Coast Adventurer’s Guide, p. 142) says:

As part of the action used to cast this spell, you must make a melee attack with a weapon against one creature within the spell’s range, otherwise the spell fails. On a hit, the target suffers the attack’s normal effects, and it becomes sheathed in booming energy until the start of your next turn. If the target willingly moves before then, it immediately takes 1d8 thunder damage, and the spell ends.

Does the secondary effect of booming blade (which does extra damage if the target moves before my next turn) stack if the spell is cast a second time as a bonus action through the sorcerer’s Quickened Spell metamagic?

If I cast Thunderous Smite and Booming Blade, hit, and use Destructive Wrath to maximize damage, how many uses of Channel Divinity are expended?

How many uses of channel divinity should be expended in the following example?

Example:

  • A character is using that a weapon that deals 2d6 thunder damage on a hit.
  • They cast Thunderous Smite, using a bonus action.
  • Then cast Booming Blade (at 5th level), making a melee attack as an action.
  • On a hit, the weapon does an additional 1d8 + 2d6 + 2d6 thunder damage.

Thunderous Smite:

The first time you hit with a melee weapon attack during this spell’s duration, your weapon rings with thunder that is audible within 300 feet of you, and the attack deals an extra 2d6 thunder damage to the target.

Booming Blade:

At 5th level, the melee attack deals an extra 1d8 thunder damage to the target, and the damage the target takes for moving increases to 2d8.

Destructive Wrath:

When you roll lightning or thunder damage, you can use your Channel Divinity to deal maximum damage, instead of rolling.

I’m interpreting this as three separate rolls for thunder damage, each requiring a use of Channel Divinity to maximize. Instead of one use of Channel Divinity to maximize all of them at once.

One of the main reasons I’m thinking this, is because another use of Channel Divinity needs to be expended to maximize the secondary damage from Booming Blade, as it’s a completely separate roll.

Can you cast racial spells with a spell slot? [duplicate]

Take for instance, a level 5 (standard) tiefling warlock. Would you be able to cast your Darkness and Hellish Rebuke spells with a spell slot? Both spells appear on the warlock spell list and could be taken as known spells by a warlock. But let’s say you didn’t take them as known spells with warlock. You can cast each of them once per day with your Infernal Legacy trait without expending a slot. The trait says (emphasis mine):

Infernal Legacy

You know the thaumaturgy cantrip. When you reach 3rd level, you can cast the hellish rebuke spell as a 2nd-level spell once with this trait and regain the ability to do so when you finish a long rest. When you reach 5th level, you can cast the darkness spell once with this trait and regain the ability to do so when you finish a long rest. Charisma is your spellcasting ability for these spells.

Since it specifically says you can cast it once with this trait are you able to cast it with spell slots without having to take it as one of your spells known as a warlock?

What does it mean to be able to cast a spell “at will”?

Throughout the D&D 5e Player’s Handbook, particularly in the warlock’s Eldritch Invocations, there are abilities that allow the player to cast specific spells “at will, without consuming a spell slot.”

However, there is no detail given on what exactly “at will” is supposed to mean.

Am I correct in assuming “at will” means “does not consume spell slot”, and nothing more?

How does the second bullet point of the War Caster feat change the ability to cast spells while holding weapons?

The second bullet point of the War Caster feat reads as follows (PHB, p. 170):

  • You can perform the somatic components of spells even when you have a weapons or a shield in one or both hands.

Are you allowed to cast spells in the following situations without the feat:

  • when wielding a sword and shield?
  • wielding a two-handed weapon, such as a greatsword?

How does this change when you have this feat? For the two-handed weapon scenario, can you not simply hold the two-handed weapon in one hand and cast the spell in the other? Or is there a rule specifying you must hold a two-handed weapon with two hands even when you are not attacking with it?

Does multiclassing suddenly allow you to cast spells from Magic Initiate (or other similar features/feats) using more spell slots?

The following question already exists and explains that you can cast spells gained from the Magic Initiate feat if and only if the class you choose is the same as one of your own:

  • Can you cast a spell learned from the Magic Initiate feat using spell slots?

So let’s assume a Wizard take the Magic Initiate feat and learns the healing word spell with the Bard option of the feat. It is established already that they cannot cast this spell using their own spell slots, for some more supporting evidence classes received errata and the Wizard class now states the following under “Spellcasting” (the bolded word “Wizard” was added):

[…] The Wizard table shows how many spell slots you have to cast your wizard spells of 1st level and higher. […]


With that established, I’m a bit confused what happens when this Wizard decides to multiclass into Bard; the multiclassing spellcasting rules state:

[…] You determine your available spell slots by adding together all your levels in the bard, cleric, druid, sorcerer, and wizard classes, and half your levels (rounded down) in the paladin and ranger classes. Use this total to determine your spell slots by consulting the Multiclass Spellcaster table. […]

There is not longer a way to distinguish between Wizard spell slots and Bard spell slots. To me this implies the following:

Before multiclassing the Wizard could not use any of their spell slots to cast healing word, but by gaining one level of Bard they can now use all of them. Is this truly the case or have I missed a rule somewhere?