Does an artificer require two hands to cast spells with a costly material component?

An artificer must use an appropriate spellcasting focus when casting artificer spells. And they must use costly material components when applicable. Neither can replace the other.

But can they handle their focus and costly material components with the same hand? I know of spells that contain more than one material component, such as Simulacrum involving both snow and powdered rubies. I am not sure whether that applies when there is both a focus and a material component in use.

Does an artificer require two hands to cast spells with a costly material component?

Would a Sentient weapon be able to save versus spells cast against it?

There was a lot more information about sentient weapons in earlier editions, but please restrict answers to 5th edition rules (but use earlier editions to back up statement if needed).

Would a sentient weapon gain a saving throw against spells cast against it? Per the DMG, they do have Intelligence, Wisdom, and Charisma.

For instance, normally the Identify spell would be able to tell the caster all sorts of information about an object. But the sentient weapon does not want to reveal all of its secrets and would try to resist the spell. I’m not limiting this question to Identify1, but that was a spell that leapt out at me.

1 Since spells only do what they say they do and Identify doesn’t list a saving throw. But why would it?

What happens when I’m invisible and something I’m wearing has Light cast on it?

The bard in my group cast the light spell on an amulet he was wearing. Then after triggering a trap, he cast invisibility on himself.

What happens in this situation? The amulet is now invisible but does it stop emitting light because of this? Or is the amulet invisible but the light it emits still visible?

Has anyone got a decent ruling on what should happen in this situation?

Does the Eldritch Knight’s Eldritch Strike feature impose disadvantage on a saving throw against a spell cast before the attack?

Consider the following scenario:

A level 10 Fighter with the Eldritch Knight (EK) archetype (PHB, p. 74-75) is facing a single opponent, and has hold person as a spell available.

  1. EK attacks with both attacks available. If both miss, they try again next turn. If either hits, Eldritch Strike (the level 10 archetype feature) triggers against the target, and EK will proceed to the next step.
  2. (a turn passes)
  3. On EK’s next turn, they cast hold person on the person targeted previously. The target has disadvantage on the save due to Eldritch Strike. If they still pass, EK goes back to square one. Otherwise, EK does the following:
  4. EK Action Surges (Fighter level 2 ability). They use the Attack action to get two attacks with advantage against the target. If either hits, it does critical damage (thanks to the paralyzed rider on hold person), and Eldritch Strike triggers.

The wording in Eldritch Strike is as follows:

When you hit a creature with a weapon attack, that creature has disadvantage on the next saving throw it makes against a spell you cast before the end of your next turn.

Does the target have disadvantage on the save against hold person it makes at the end of its next turn, even though hold person was cast before the triggering of the Eldritch Strike event that would impose disadvantage?

Must a Wizard prepare a spell to cast it as a ritual?

Ritual casting does not expend a spell slot, I know that. However, the Wizard class feature does not say anything about whether you must prepare the subject spell to cast it as a ritual. On one side, it is anyway “casting” a spell, so you can say “yes, you must prepare.” On the other hand, (although it is just about how wizards cast rituals,) your ritual involves your spellbook, so you can see the ritual ceremony “from the spellbook”, which removes the need to prepare the spell.

My question is: Must I prepare the subject spell in advance to perform it?

This is only about Wizards. Clerics, Druids, Bards have these problems nailed down explicitly. Clerics’ and Druids’ ritual casting requires you to prepare the spell in advance, and Bards’ rituals can only be drawn from what they know.

Can the Oath of Vengeance paladin cast Vow of Enmity on invisible target

I was reading the Channel Divinity abilities of the Oath of Vengeance of the paladin and under Vow of Enmity, it says

As a bonus action, you can use your Channel Divinity to choose a creature within 10 ft. and gain advantage on attack rolls against it for 1 minute or until it drops to 0 HP or falls unconscious.

My question is can this spell be cast on an invisible creature, since it is not written that I need to see it ?

For reference, Channel Divinity: Abjure Enemy says the following:

As an action, you can choose one creature within 60 ft. of you that you can see to make a WIS saving throw (14). Fiends and undead have disadvantage on this saving throw. On failure, the creature is frightened and its speed is reduced to 0 (and it can’t benefit from bonuses to speed) for 1 minute or until it takes any damage. On success, the creature’s speed is halved for 1 minute or until the creature takes any damage.

Here is proof that I’m reading it in DnDBeyond, on my character’s page enter image description here

Can an artificer cast spells using a single component from a set of artisan’s tools?

Under Tools Required

You produce your artificer spell effects through your tools. You must have a spellcasting focus – specifically tinker’ tools or some kind of artisan’s tool – in hand when you cast any spell with this Spellcasting feature. You must be proficient with the tool to use it in this way.

"Artisan’s tool" is singular. But it can refer to a set of objects.

For example:

Weaver’s tools include thread, needles, and scraps of cloth.

Weaver’s tools are an artisan’s tool but does an artificer proficient with them need to hold the needle, thread, and cloth in one hand to cast spells?

For example, the party has been striped of all their belongings but not their clothes. Can an artificer with proficiency in weaver’s tools tear off a scrap of their clothing and begin casting?

Can an Arcane Trickster or Eldritch Knight who takes the Magic Initiate (Wizard) feat cast the first level spell they pick with their spell slots? [duplicate]

Can an Arcane Trickster or Eldritch Knight who takes the Magic Initiate (Wizard) feat cast the first level spell they pick with their spell slots, like a Bard who took Magic Initiate (Bard) can? Or the Wizard for that matter?

Both AT and EK uses the wizard spell list, so one could assume so, but can they?

What are the consequences if wizards can cast unprepared spells from their spellbooks?

It’s a staple of the fantasy genre: faced with an obstacle the barbarian can’t punch his way through, the wizard flips through his spellbook until he finds the perfect spell. He reaches into his component pouch, withdrawing—somehow—exactly what he needs, then casts a powerful spell, surprising the heroes and allowing them to continue on.

Wizards don’t get to do that in 5e. They prepare so many spells per day out of their spellbook, and unless the other spells within are tagged ritual, they don’t get to see use until after the next long rest.

I want to house-rule that a wizard can cast unprepared spells from their book in the absence of exigent conditions. If I have time and space to crack out my spellbook, being disallowed from mage armor, disguise self, or jump without [8 minus sleep] hours of study feels arbitrary. What about the game changes, especially balance-wise, if wizards are allowed to cast unprepared spells from their spellbooks?

Note: this would be different from [ritual] spell casting from the spell book. In this proposed scheme, casting an unprepared spell would still require slots.

Would the Magnificent Mansion if cast on a moving object remain where it was cast or stay with the object?

The question has arisen in my mind on whether when a mage has cast a Magnificent Mansion (5e) while on an object that is in motion (boat, airship, giant alpaca, etc), would the doorway to the Mansion then remain static in place?

The relavent wording from the spell: "You conjure an extradimensional dwelling in range that lasts for the duration. You choose where the entrance is located. The entrance is 5 feet wide and 10 feet tall…"

I could see that this would indicate that the mage has chosen the location to be the giant alpaca and as such that is where the door would remain located. Or that the mage has chosen the place in space that the door is located and as such the door would remain there despite the alpaca continuing to move forward. Or perhaps something else might occur…?