Does the War Caster feat grant ranged spell attacks in melee range without disadvantage?

An opportunity attack is described this way (PHB, p. 195):

You can make an opportunity attack when a hostile creature that you can see moves out of your reach. To make the opportunity attack, you use your reaction to make one melee attack against the provoking creature.

The last benefit of the War Caster feat says (PHB, p. 170):

  • When a hostile creature’s movement provokes an opportunity attack from you, you can use your reaction to cast a spell at the creature, rather than making an opportunity attack. The spell must have a casting time of 1 action and must target only that creature.

Without the Crossbow Expert feat, all ranged attacks (including ranged spell attacks) made when an enemy is adjacent suffer this penalty (PHB, p. 195):

You have disadvantage on a ranged attack roll if you are within 5 feet of a hostile creature that can see you and that isn’t incapacitated.

As an opportunity attack normally grants a melee attack, does it seem reasonable to assume that the target remains at melee range for the spell attack granted by War Caster? If so, does this require ranged spell attack rolls to be made with disadvantage?

The trigger for an OA is a creature moving “out of your reach”. This suggests to me that the creature is out of the 5′ disadvantage zone, but it seems like that would preclude making a melee spell attack.

Do characters with the War Caster feat get the best of both worlds: being allowed to make either a melee spell attack or a non-disadvantaged ranged spell attack?

Does Time Stop apply a magical effect on only the caster, or does it affect everyone else too?

If the answers to this question are anything to go by, time stop seems to be a surprisingly nuanced spell, but one basic disagreement that’s appeared in the comments has been that one camp thinks time stop applies an effect only on the caster, whereas the other thinks it also applies a magical effect to everyone else, too.

Granted, time stop applies a magical effect on the caster – of that, I have no question. But does it also apply a magical effect on everyone else in the multiverse as well?

Why does time stop NOT apply a magical effect on other creatures

Here are the points I’ve understood for the side that thinks time stop applies only to the caster:

  1. It has a range of Self, meaning that it only applies a magical effect on the caster.

  2. There is no spell in D&D that applies an effect to every single creature in the multiverse, except maybe for wish.

Why DOES time stop apply a magical effect on other creatures

Here are the points from the side that thinks time stop applies a magical effect to everyone as well (I’m a member of this camp):

  1. Spells with a range of Self can still apply magical effects to other creatures, such as detect thoughts, dream, magic jar, and spirit guardians.

  2. The spell’s first sentence says: “You briefly stop the flow of time for everyone but yourself,” and that wording seems to directly state that everyone but the caster experiences a magical effect where the flow of time stops for them.

Consequences, implications

There are consequences for choosing one side over the other, which is the motivation for asking this question.

Consequences: Time stop does NOT apply a magical effect to other creatures

Going with the first camp, you can side step the confusion that comes with zones of antimagic and time stop. But, it doesn’t strictly follow the wording of the spell by ignoring the sentence “You briefly stop the flow of time for everyone but yourself.”

In addition, by claiming that spells with a range of Self do not impose a magical effect on other creatures, that same logic can be applied to, say, magic jar, where a humanoid inside a zone of antimagic can still be possessed because the spell has a range of Self, so it affects only the caster, and therefore the possession of other creatures is not a magical effect of the spell. The same logic can be applied to many other spells with a range of Self, some of which are listed above.

Consequences: Time stop DOES apply a magical effect to other creatures

Going with the second camp, yes, you can more closely follow the spell’s text as written. However, you also open the doors to the aforementioned confusion between zones of antimagic and time stop.

If time stop creates a magical effect on every other creature in the multiverse, across planes of existence (which seems to be the valid interpretation of “everyone but yourself” – and take note, this is a 9th level spell on par with wish), then being immune to it in any way (whether you’re inside a zone of antimagic, you are immune via the wish spell, or you’re one of the gods of the multiverse) will allow you to observe as everyone suddenly freezes in time whenever someone casts time stop.

It also fails to offer a resolution to the linked question, where initiative order between someone inside an antimagic field and a caster of time stop is not well defined.

The Question

With all the above in context, the question is as the title says: does Time Stop apply a magical effect on only the caster, or does it affect everyone else too?

If a caster readies Time Stop and casts it as a reaction during another creature’s turn, what happens to that creature’s turn?

Imagine Tim and Charlie are in combat. Tim takes the Ready action to cast time stop, with some trigger specified that should occur on Charlie’s turn. Charlie takes his turn, triggers Tim’s readied action in the middle of that turn, and time stop is cast.

What happens to Charlie’s turn? Does it immediately end? Does Tim get to take his turns, and when he’s done, Charlie can continue where he left off?

Can caster prove truthfulness with “Zone of Truth”

I’ve seen a lot of posts about how “Zone of Truth” might be defeated by the target. But my character has the opposite problem: he’s extremely truthful but people don’t always believe him. Is there any mechanism for using Zone of Truth to make verifiably True statements?

If I cast ZoT, I know (to first order) who in the zone succeeds or fails. I would also have to make a save, which I could fail voluntarily. Is there any way I could reliably convince my interlocutors that I did indeed fail (note: this isn’t “convince them I’m telling the truth when I’m lying” but “convince them I’m telling the truth when I am.”

One of the great powers of the Aes Sedai First Oath was that if an Aes Sedai made a statement without evasion, then all knew it to be true and reliable. And if the Aes Sedai said “I am not trying to mislead you, you understand my point correctly” it was more powerful. Zone of Truth has precisely the opposite power.

When a Glyph of Warding is triggered, does the caster know?

Let’s say an explosive glyph was set in front of a house of someone that might be attacked late in the night. Condition set that any hostile creature to the person that passes by triggers it.

So nighttime comes and sure enough a dumb assassin who doesn’t check for magic or anything stumbles onto the glyph.

If I was the one who created the glyph, and I was across the town, would I know it was triggered?

I know there is the option of storing a spell like Sending in a glyph and having it communicate that way. But I was thinking that use to be more of sending someone within town a message if the trigger happens while we’re far out adventuring.

Since the caster of the Zone of Truth of spell knows whether a creature failed the save, can they use it to detect hidden/invisible creatures?

I’m DMing for a 5e party that includes a cleric, as many parties do. This cleric has found (what appears to be) an interpretation of the wording of the “Zone of Truth” spell that makes it even more powerful than it seems to be intended to be.

His idea is that since Zone of Truth tells you when a creature succeeds or fails the save, he could use it to detect if a hidden or invisible person enters the radius, as it would tell him that someone succeeded or failed the save.

Is this true? if not, is there any official example that specifically says it’s not true?

(And, if Zone of Truth WOULD do this, is there any way to prevent such a detection, as I know the party will do this a ton, and if it’s something they can do, I don’t want to deny it outright, but some villains may have countermeasures)

What happens to the target of a “permanent” True Polymorph spell, when its caster dies

The description of the spell says specifically that after the caster has maintained it’s concentration for an hour, the spell can be dispelled.

The transformation lasts for the duration, or until the target drops to 0 hit points or dies. If you concentrate on this spell for the full duration, the spell lasts until it is dispelled.

In another question it was specified that spells which can be dispelled, will last until its effect ends. While spells which requires concentration, will end upon death. However it does not specify what happens with a spell that initially requires concentration.

If the caster dies after this duration, what happens to the target?

  • Does the target retain its current form?
  • Does the target revert back to the previous form?