Does Divine Word’s Killing Effect Come Before or After the Banishing Effect (For Fiends)

This question is stated right in the title.

In this case, a cleric might cast Divine Word with a fiend with 20 or less HP in the area, and the fiend can hear the cleric.

As we all know, if a fiend fails its save against Divine Word is banished to its home plane. However, all creatures with 20 HP or less is killed instantly. Would, say, a demon that failed its save while under 20 HP be killed first, or sent to the Abyss, then killed there? Same thing with devils, night hags, rakshasas, yugoloths, et cetera. The yugoloth home plane is Gehenna, for specifics.

Does a Divine Soul Sorcerer have access to the additional cleric spells in Tasha’s Cauldron of Everything?

Additional Cleric Spells

1st-level cleric feature

The spells in the following list expand the cleric spell list in the Player’s Handbook. The list is organized by spell level, not character level.

Divine Magic

When your Spellcasting feature lets you learn or replace a sorcerer cantrip or a sorcerer spell of 1st level or higher, you can choose the new spell from the cleric spell list or the sorcerer spell list. You must otherwise obey all the restrictions for selecting the spell, and it becomes a sorcerer spell for you.

Do the additional spells count as being on the Cleric’s spell list for the purposes of Divine Magic as long as both supplements are agreed to be used?

Can a Divine Crusader that have more domains choose different spells of the same level from different domains?

Can a Divine Crusader that have more domains choose different spells of the same level from different domains?

For example: if I have 3 level one slots and I have the domains of Strength and Protection, can I choose to prepare two Enlarge person and one Sanctuary?

Thanks.

Can a paladin use the Divine Smite feature with a thrown weapon?

A paladin’s divine smite says (PHB. 85), “…when you hit a creature with a melee weapon attack…”, which I’m seeing two ways to interpret.

  1. “A melee attack with a weapon”, so as long as it’s a melee attack and you’re using a weapon smite away.

  2. “An attack with a melee weapon”, is where things get odd. Under (PHB. 149), “Simple Melee Weapons”, includes spears which have the Thrown property. Thrown states (PHB. 147), “…you can throw the weapon to make a ranged attack. If the weapon is a melee weapon…”, so even while being thrown it is still a, “melee weapon”

Since it would be easy to house rule this (Rule of Cool: Smiting with a spear sounds neat) I’d like an answer that either references word of god or provides a convincing argument that this type of reading applied to other parts of the rules results in absurdities.

Improved Divine Smite Differentiation

Improved Divine Smite (PHB, p. 85) says in part:

… Whenever you hit a creature with a melee weapon, the creature takes an extra 1d8 radiant damage. If you also use your Divine Smite with an attack, you add this damage to the extra damage of your Divine Smite

Emphasis to show the part I’m focusing on.

So it was my understanding that Improved Divine Smite deals an extra 1d8 Radiant damage whenever I swing on a creature with a Melee weapon and hit them, no matter what else I’m adding to the weapon attack (such as Searing Smite, Divine Smite, poison I put on my sword before combat, etc). This definition makes a purpose of differentiating what happens if I also use Divine Smite with my attack.

I am more than likely confused or reading too far into the definition but I’d like to know why the book is making such a differentiation. What is it saying? That if I make a weapon attack without Divine Smite, the extra (non magical?) 1d8 radiant is added to the weapon damage, but if I do include a Divine Smite on the end, then the extra (now magical?) 1d8 radiant is added to the smite damage instead?

Does that change anything at all? Is this differentiation important to some sort of tactic or resistance I’m not considering?

Atheism in the DnD5e universe: is it a thing, and how common is it? Are clerics accepted to derive power from the divine?

My question comes up from a bit of weird exchange we had last session. Short version of the question: Is not believing in the existence of gods in most DnD universes really a widespread thing? Are clerics that can tap into these abilities very uncommon or believed to get their magic from some other source? And if no to these, how does one handle PC’s behaving as if this were so?

Long version: I ended up multiclassing cleric through a pretty cool set of story hooks that my DM did a good job working with me in setting up. I definitely wasn’t a stereotypical stoic priest preaching about my god or anything like that.

In terms of story as it played out when I revealed this new power to the rest of the party (which they were present OOC for me receiving), one of our party had a roleplay situation that came where I could use my new class to help, and I told the rest of party that if they would help me, I’d like to offer this help to the other PC (the object of the help was not present IC so didn’t react).

I was kinda bummed that the reception was anywhere from condescension to incredulity (both IC and OOC), at least one of them heavily implying that thinking a god exists is stupid, and I really felt like this was out of place; my impression (granted, as someone fairly new to this) was that the existence of gods in the DnD universes are no more contested than the existence of magic: it exists, everyone knows it exists whether or not they’ve directly been affected by it. Is this impression wrong? I feel as though nobody would have blinked if I multiclassed into warlock and made a pact with a supernatural being, but for some reason because it was explicitly a ‘god’ I attuned to there was a lot more incredulity.

I’m not really sure how to handle this going forward. Is this the sort of thing I should talk the DM about and get straight? Should I talk with the other players directly? Is my impression on the wide acceptance of gods just wrong? Not sure how to deal with this, IC or OOC. It sorta sucks, because I was really excited for this multiclass and I walked away feeling kinda dumb and not really being into it anymore. Thanks for suggestions.

E: Should have mentioned, we are using homebrew that seems to get material like this from Forgotten Realms based on our warlock’s already-existing pact. DM hasn’t mentioned to either of us to tailor our choices of being to his setting.

Can a multiclass divine soul sorcerer / wizard add cleric spells to the spellbook?

I am in a campaign where I am a level 2 sorcerer and level 1 wizard and I have a paladin, a cleric, and a druid in my party. I was wondering if I am a divine sorcerer and have access to the cleric spell list, can the cleric or the paladin write cleric spells in my spellbook?
Or if I find or buy cleric spell scrolls can I add them to my spellbook?

Why? or Why not?

Does the Zealot Barbarian’s Divine Fury apply multiple times if you focus the same target?

The Path of the Zealot barbarian (Xanathar’s Guide to Everything, p. 11) gets the Divine Fury feature at level 3, which states:

At 3rd level, while you’re raging, the first creature you hit on each of your turns with a weapon attack takes extra damage equal to 1d6 + half your barbarian level. The extra damage is necrotic or radiant; you choose the type of damage when you gain this feature.

The RAI intent seems as though it should be the first successful hit to a creature on your turn deals an additional 1d6 damage, but it doesn’t seem as explicit as Sneak Attack, which states that it only happens once per turn.

Does Divine Fury truly work the same way as the rogue’s Sneak Attack, or can you proc Divine Fury multiple times if you focus fire?

Could a Paladin use the Divine Smite ability on a disarm attack?

The Oath of Redemption Paladin that I DM for has asked me for clarification on disarming rules. I’ve decided to use the optional rules from page 271 of the DMG, which state:

Disarm
A creature can use a weapon attack to knock a weapon or another item from a target’s grasp. The attacker makes an attack roll contested by the target’s Athletics or Acrobatics check. If the attacker wins the contest the attack causes no damage or other ill effect, but the defender drops the item.

However, I am wondering if he would be able to activate his Divine Smite on that disarm.

Divine Smite
When you hit a creature with a melee weapon attack, you can expend one spell slot to deal radiant damage to the target, in addition to the weapon’s damage.

Technically the Paladin has hit the target with a melee weapon attack which leads me to want to rule yes. The disarm rules do state that the attack causes no damage or other ill effects, but the Divine Smite wouldn’t be strictly part of that attack. I feel like I am leaning towards allowing Divine Smite to work after a successful Disarm, but wanted to see if there is any precedent for something like this as I have found no specific rulings to this question anywhere.

How does removing crit damage for divine smite and sneak attack affect balance?

At my table, there is a house rule that divine smite and sneak attack do not recieve critical hit bonuses.

I’m worried this would heavily affect the balance of the game and am trying to petition for going back to the core rules. But the DM and a couple players believe that that would be too OP.

This is a continuation of a previous question.