Does the Dual Wielder feat work with the Armorer’s Thunder Gauntlets?

Can you do this to do bonus action attacks as an armorer?

The Dual Wielder feat grants the following:

You gain a +1 bonus to AC while you are wielding a separate melee weapon in each hand.

You can use two-weapon fighting even when the one handed melee weapons you are wielding aren’t light.

The Thunder Gauntlets are described as follows:

Each of the armor’s gauntlets counts as a simple melee weapon while you aren’t holding anything in it, and it deals 1d8 thunder damage on a hit.

How can I optimize my dual wield fighter for damage?

Ok so I’ll be concise with this but tl;dr I’m starting a new campaign at level 5 as a fighter, would like to duel wield and want to optimize myself so I deal damage and don’t fall off late game. Also like to add my DM is quite lenient as we like to have fun over following rules to a t.

Race: Valenar High Elf

Weapons: Two scimitars

Stats: STR: 17 (+3), DEX: 18 (+4), CON: 16 (+3), INT: 15 (+2), WIS: 11 (+0), CHR: 11 (+0).

Fighting Style: Great Weapon Fighter. I’ve unsure whether this is optimal for my duel wielder or not late game? I’ve heard TWF is just not good whatsoever.

Martial Archetype: Eldritch Knight. My secondary scimitar will be my focus, so I can cast while duel wielding.

At level 4 I didn’t choose a feat, and instead gave +1 to DEX and +1 to STR.

Cantrips: Chill Touch, Fire Bolt, Green-Flame Blade.

Spells: Absorb Elements, Earth Tremor, Shield, Thunderwave.

I’m not sure where to change, but I want to keep being an EK.

Wielding two weapons without “Two-Weapon Fighting” or “Dual Wielder”?

We have a Barbarian on our team that very much likes to switch up his weapons; he goes from a Dwarven Hammer, to a pair of Hand-Axes, to occasionally just going bare-fisted. No issues there, he’s fairly adept with all 3.

However, I have only just recently picked up on the way that he rolls his attacks for the two Hand-Axes: He rolls the first attack, adds his modifiers etc. Then he rolls the second attack, this time without modifiers, which is all well and good. But I’m not sure if this action uses his bonus action or not, or is considered a separate action (though, being a level 4 Barbarian, he only has one action per turn), or is merely part of the same action.

If we have a look at the Two-Weapon Fighting feature from the Fighter’s fighting styles:

Two-Weapon Fighting
When you engage in two-weapon fighting, you can add your ability modifier to the damage of the second attack. (PHB5e p.72)

Similarly, the Dual Wielder feat also uses the Two-Weapon Fighting feat:

Dual Wielder
You master fighting with two weapons, gaining the following benefits:

  • You can use two-weapon fighting even when the one-handed melee weapons you are wielding aren’t light. (PHB5e p.164, emphasis mine)

So; yes, this gives a bonus to the second weapon attack, but having asked a separate question to clarify which action this secondary weapon attack belongs to, it was determined that this uses your bonus action;

[…] the second attack requires a bonus action

So after that long winded explanation, here is the question: Without any additional feats, can you wield and use two weapons at once, and if so, how many actions does it require to make a full attack with both weapons in a turn?

Does the second attack from the Dual Wielder feat require an additional action, or a bonus action, to carry out?

I am looking at taking the Dual Wielder feat (PHB, p. 165), but I am not entirely sure as to how it works specifically. It includes the following benefit, among others:

You can use two-weapon fighting even when the one-handed melee weapons you are wielding aren’t light.

Does this second weapon attack require an additional action, or a bonus action, to carry out?

How does the Dual Wielder feat interact with versatile weapons?

I have a level 4 Paladin with the Dual Wielder feat (PHB p. 165):

You master fighting with two weapons, gaining the following benefits:

  • You gain a +1 bonus to AC while you are wielding a separate melee weapon in each hand.
  • You can use two-weapon fighting even when the one-handed melee weapons you are wielding aren’t light.
  • You can draw or stow two one-handed weapons when you would normally be able to draw or stow only one.

He does not have the Two-Weapon Fighting fighting style. He is wielding a longsword in one hand and a handaxe in his other (a thrown weapon).

Can the paladin throw the handaxe, switch grips on the longsword to hold it two-handed, and then use his bonus action from Two-Weapon Fighting to swing the longsword as a two-handed weapon?

If yes, can he then end his turn by drawing another handaxe (2nd free object interaction for Dual Wielder, and assuming he has another axe to draw)?

Does the Dual Wielder feat require me to have the Two-Weapon Fighting fighting style as a prerequisite?

Say I choose the fighter class, and pick Two-Weapon Fighting as my fighting style; later in the game, I choose the Dual Wielder feat.

Does the Two-Weapon Fighting fighting style become obsolete, if Dual Wielder’s benefits are superior to the Two-Weapon Fighting fighting style?

And is the Two-Weapon Fighting fighting style a requirement for Dual Wielder?

How to prove that the dual linear program of the max-flow linear program indeed is a min-cut linear program?

So the wikipedia page gives the following linear programs for max-flow, and the dual program :

enter image description here

While it is quite straight forward to see that the max-flow linear program indeed computes a maximum flow (every feasable solution is a flow, and every flow is a feasable solution), i couldn’t find convincing proof that the dual of the max-flow linear program indeed is the LP of the min-cut problem.

An ‘intuitive’ proof is given on wikipedia, namely : $ d_{uv}$ is 1 if the edge $ (u,v)$ is counted in the cut and else $ 0$ , $ z_u$ is $ 1$ if $ u$ is in the same side than $ s$ in the cut, and $ 0$ if $ u$ is in the same side of the cut than $ t$

But that doesn’t convince me a lot, mainly why should all the variables be integers, while we don’t have integer conditions ?

And in general, do you have a convincing proof that the dual of the max-flow LP indeed is the LP formulation for min-cut ?

RC-Code if I have a generator matrix for a specific code how do I get the distance to the dual code?

$ \mathcal{R} \mathcal{S}_{6, 3}$ and $ a_{i} \in \mathbb{F}_{11}$

G=\begin{pmatrix}1&1&1 &1&1&1\ 0&1&2 &3&4&5\ 0&1^2&2^2 &3^2&4^2&5^2 \end{pmatrix}

G=\begin{pmatrix} 1&1&1 &1&1&1\0&1&2 &3&4&5\ 0&1&4 &9&5&3 \end{pmatrix}

I now have to determine the distance to the dual code.

Any clue how to accomplish this?

Thanks for any help.