This is a bit difficult of an idea for me to articulate, so I’ll try and do my best: If a character was to attempt and cast a spell with a casting time of 1 minute, while in combat, would they have to simply consume their action for 10 turns, but still move and take bonus actions? Would they be unable to do anything except cast that spell? Would they also be required to maintain concentration?
In the last century between 3.5E (~1372 DR), and 5E (~1489), Thay went through the civil war in which lich Szass Tam won, and banished other wizards making necromancy and undead arcanist the ruling class of the nation.
In 3.5E Thay was famous for two exports – slaves and magic items. However, in the current situation of the world creating magic items is more difficult, and Thay going full necromancy shouldn’t be so interested in the exports.
This connects with enclaves which they were building in distant countries in the Sword Coast. If I remember they even appeared in one of the offical adventures for D&D 3E. I can’t find any materials which confirm that they are still there, but if they can’t produce and export magic items they don’t make too much sense.
Is there any mention in the books or other official materials for D&D 5E that Thay Mages still are selling magical items in the enclaves, or are they abandoned?
As I’m making my way through a campaign, I’m beginning to realize that I don’t know what to do about money. My tier 2 (out of 6) players have 200 shins (gold in Numenera terms) between 5 of them, we don’t know if that’s a lot or a little, and we stopped caring about money altogether – finding monetary rewards is not exciting, and money is not a motivator. I’m trying to price and offer some goods and services — which will create the desire for players to spend (and acquire) wealth.
Is there some generic guideline against which I can use to price things? I think I just don’t have a good gut feeling how to price hiring a group of guards or a spy for a month vs a sack of grain or price of a sword.
How do I begin to estimate price of goods and services? Are there good resources to help me?
The versatile weapon property says (PHB, p. 147):
Versatile. This weapon can be used with one or two hands. A damage value in parentheses appears with the property–the damage when the weapon is used with two hands to make a melee attack.
A weapon with the versatile property, such as a longsword or a quarterstaff, can be wielded with one or two hands. Does it consume any part of the action economy to switch between using one or two hands on your turn?
Intuitively I’d say no, I imagine it costs absolutely nothing, but I can imagine, at worst, there being arguments for it costing your “free object interaction” (PHB, p. 190). Which is it?
(Below are some related Q&As, but not specific to versatile weapons, sadly).
The accepted answer to a related Q&A (thanks @NautArch) suggests that:
Taking your hand off the weapon should not require any action expenditure – you are just letting go of it, same as if you dropped it.
You can then use your free object interaction to restore your grip after casting.
The reasoning for the first case makes sense, but the second case isn’t backed up by anything, although I can see the logic behind it.
The errata posted in that answer, to me, suggests that it would in fact cost nothing to grip the weapon with a second hand, almost like it’s “part of the attack”, similar to how the Ammunition weapon property works, but again, this is logic, not RAW.
To give a concrete example, if we imagine that a PC’s turn starts with a longsword in one hand and a spellcasting focus in the other; they spend their bonus action casting a spell with their focus, and then spend their free object interaction putting that focus away. With only their action left, can they now attack with their longsword using it as a versatile weapon (i.e. dealing 1d10 damage instead of 1d8)?
See also, the “following round” scenario of this question (thanks @Medix2), which involves sheathing a shortsword and attacking with a longbow that requires two hands. This is almost exactly the same scenario as the one I detailed above.
I’m going to be GM-ing a Pathfinder Adventure Path with PF1e rules, but with some D&D players (who are familiar with 3.5/5e rules). This’ll be their first foray into PF so I wanted to explain some (not all, at least not until we get to those parts anyway) mechanic differences between 3.5/5e and PF1e
I came across this answer outlining the differences between D&D 3.5e and PF1e, but didn’t come across anything about differences in action economy. I got this answer for the PF1e and this post about D&D action economy,but nothing really outlining how PF1e is different from D&D 3.5/5e.
Can someone explain how PF 1e action economy differs from D&D 3.5/5?
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My grandma was in economy class on a full Air Canada flight. The bathrooms were, unusually, very occupied, and were accompanied by long lines and passengers waiting. They soon became filthy; she saw egesta on the floor and toilet in some of them. She asked the cabin crew if the bathrooms would be cleaned, but they just put paper towels to hide the egesta without cleaning.
So without asking first or explicit permission, she walked up to use the business class lavatory, where the Service Director chided her:
Madam, use the lavatories in Economy. Please refrain from using the lavatories up here.
My grandma apologized, and tried to explain the long waits and the filthiness, but he still chided her the second time:
I already told you not to use this class’s lavatory.
In such unusual cases of filthiness and unavailability, can economy-class passengers use business-class toilets?
I ask this for reputable airlines in general. American Airlines permits this gambit, but other airlines’ stance is unclear. If Air Canada loathed this, why’d they compensate this grandma?
I bought tickets for an in Europe flight via an online tour operator and got Economy / Tourism R and Economy / Tourism T as fares
The airline company clearly states there is not checked in baggage so I bought one piece as extra but what’s not clear is about the carry on / cabin baggage: in addition to the actual baggage piece (the one up to 8kg) it is also said a small personal item (e.g. handbag, …) up to 3kg is included but for the Economy Light
Unfortunately it is not clear to me if any of my fares is Economy Light, from researchers it does not seem so but that’s something certainly not clear to me
Is it anything standardized or company specific ?
If it is standardized, could you suggest a website that clearly explains this ?
I just bought a trip travelling to the US with Lufthansa’s economy light fare. I have previously travelled with Lufthansa and I have been allowed to take a ”personal item” AND a carry on, however, this time around I can’t find any info about a personal item and just about the carry-on! so do I dare bring two bags or will I be charged extra?
What are the headphones like on the British Airways Boeing 787 economy?
I have lost my noise cancelling headphones so I want to know.