For example a user “force stop” an app X, and when user opens my app, and can my app initiate an app X ?. Is it legal? There wont be any security flaw? If I can initiate an app X, I can also access the initiate methods of, many apps right? Does Android allows it? is it legal to do so?
I’m going to share an example where I noticed this and would like to know if there is a known pattern of why one would do this.
I have two instances of
rsyslog running on different machines. One acts as a receiving server, the other as the sending client.
While there is a connection the following is seen on the server:
receiving-server$ netstat -plant4 | grep 192.168.101 tcp 0 0 192.168.101.180:80 192.168.101.14:50070 ESTABLISHED 4925/rsyslogd
After that a stopping of the client service is triggered:
sending-client$ systemctl stop rsyslog
receiving-server$ netstat -plant4 | grep 192.168.101 tcp 0 0 192.168.101.180:80 192.168.101.14:50070 TIME_WAIT -
TIME_WAIT is a state that happens on the side which initiated the connection termination ref.
TIME-WAIT - represents waiting for enough time to pass to be sure the remote TCP received the acknowledgment of its connection termination request.
This means that the client is telling the server initiate closing the connections because that same client is stopping. Why wouldn’t the client just close the connections?
Let’s say user A has public key P and corresponding private key P’. Can someone else initiate a transaction for public key P with some wrong private key, let’s say P”? Once this goes to the memory pool, miners will see that it is not signed with correct private key P’ and will reject the transaction. Does it happen this way? Or is it that I can’t initiate a transaction at all with wrong key?
If a Wizard takes the Magic Initiate feat (PHB, p. 168), can he select 2 cantrips and a level 1 spell from the Wizard list? Or does he have to take them from a different class?
yes, I know, this question is very similar to others I’ve found.
Can you cast a magic initiate spell using spell slots?
The above post concludes that if the caster does not choose their own class, they cannot cast the spell learned through the feat Magic Initiate.
My question is this: if the spell learned through Magic Initiate exists in my spell list, but I chose another class for some reason, can I still not cast it using my own spell slots?
For example, let’s say I have a wizard and decided to take the Magic Initiate feat, and chose to take the spell from the bard class. The spell of choice: Tasha’s Hideous Laughter (or Hideous Laughter).
Since this spell is both on the bard and wizard’s spell list, could I use my own spell slots to cast it?
I’m somewhat new to the game so sorry if this question is a stupid one and my english isn’t the best either so pls excuse that as well ^^.
That being said, I’m unsure how initiating combat with an assassination (rogue assassin) really works.
If i successfully sneak up on someone/something and declare an assassination (or attack), my target and me roll for initiative and combat proceeds. Right?
But that seems kinda weird to me. There could be the possibility of my target rolling a better initiative, going first (but not doing anything bc it is surprised), losing its surprised status on the end of its turn and giving me the turn to attack. This means I wouldn’t get advantage (Assassinate ability) bc my target had its turn before me meaning I also wouldn’t get my sneak attack bonus (Sneak attack ability) and since the target isn’t surprised anymore I also wouldn’t do crit damage (Assassinate ability). That just doesn’t make any sense to me since I would have attacked from a totally advantageous position an enemy that wouldn’t even be aware of me. Did I miss something?
Is my thinking of how this works correct or am I right in suspecting that I missed something?
My AWS development has the following architecture.
1 VPC having 2 Private Subnets: 1 for RDS (10.0.11.0/24), 1 for EC2(10.0.1.0/24) 1 Public Subnet:
1 Internet Gateway attached to my VPC
3 Route Table:
a) Main Route Table (0.0.0.0/0 target Internet Gateway)
b) EC2 Route Table (Associated with EC2 Private Subnet) plus additional route 0.0.0.0/0 targeted to Network ID interface of NAT instance
c) RDS Route Table (Associated with RDS Private Subnet)
3 Security Groups:
a) EC2 (Incoming as selected and Outgoing allowed All)
b) RDS (Incoming as selected and Outgoing allowed All)
c) NAT (Incoming as selected and Outgoing allowed All)
iptable prerouting rules have been added in NAT instance to redirect data to EC2 instance ports. Incoming data is fine as per the rules. SSH and other opened ports are working.
Problem is all outgoing network calls from my EC2 instance are blocked. I can not even perform commands like “apt-get update” or clone repo from github. They get timed out. Also, my server code can not reach AWS S3 resources. Connection to RDS is working fine.
Earlier it was working fine for last few months. Yesterday, I was installing nginx and played with ufw and that is when I noticed the issue and I thought I messed up iptables and thus purged ufw package and flushed iptable rules, rebooted. Still it did not help.
I launched another EC2 instance with the same subnet and other rules, just to see if the issue is with the earlier EC2 instance. Even the new instance is not able to reach external websites. No idea how to investigate further.
I have integrated the ACF Pro plug-in into a website, all the fields pull through as expected, except the Google Map.
I run an ‘if not empty’ check on my map field before I paste out my map with its marker. This check is passed, so the system knows I have put something there. I know this as it pastes out the map but with no marker. If my subfield was empty it simply wouldn’t be there.
<?php while( have_rows('big_headquarterz_location') ): the_row(); $ big_headquarterz_mapz = get_sub_field('big_headquarterz_mapz'); if ($ big_headquarterz_mapz != '') : ?> <div class="big-location-map"> <div class="acf-map"> <div class="marker" data-lat="<?php echo $ big_headquarterz_mapz['lat']; ?>" data-lng="<?php echo $ big_headquarterz_mapz['lng']; ?>"> </div> </div> </div> <?php endif; ?>
This map field is sitting in a subfield of a repeater, that is a subfield of a repeater.
I have a snippet in my functions.php passing the Map API Key. Speaking of which I have tried two different keys.
I include this snippet:
I have also created a google-maps.js which include is pulled in to the page where it is needed. I then call the maps.js:
I receive no errors in my console.
I have read 25+ manuals, 50+ code forums, 25+ attempts to implement in different ways and had ZERO luck! Does ACF not care about this issue everyone keeps having?
Why is this plug in both the best and worst thing to ever happen to me :c
Why does my implementation of the Google Maps within ACF Advanced Custom Fields not initiate the markers (shows a map with no marker centered to the middle of the sea / ocean)?
After skimming through the tutorial at www.crystal-Lang.org, I understand most of the basics but I’m having trouble grasping types. Like everything else they seem to be somewhere between Ruby’s (automatically decided) and C/C++’s (you declare types). Can someone briefly explain how to declare them manually and when it’s necessary to?
In Adventurers League, does Magic Initiate let you take a spell that is not in your PHB+1? We know that “Feats and spells gained by advancement are subject to PHB+1”, but in this case Magic Initiate is part of the PHB+1 and that in general is possible obtain spell out the PHB+1, but out the advancement in level (see wizards)