For the specific campaign of “Odyssey of the Dragon Lords”, can a javelin be considered a “ranged Weapon” for the purpose of using DEX to hit/dam?

In core 5e RAW rules, Javelins are simple melee weapons (STR based). However in this particular players guide they talk about Ranged weapons, which Javelins are mentioned.

On Page 20 of the "Odyssey of the Dragon lord" players manual:

Thylean Weapons Warriors in Thylea typically use spears, shields, and swords. There are exceptions, of course, but the armies of Mytros and Aresia train thousands of soldiers in the use of these simple armaments. Heavier weapons, such as halberds and greataxes, are thought to be barbaric.

Ranged weapons are typically limited to javelins, slings, longbows, and shortbows, although there are some who have adopted the use of complex recent inventions, such as crossbows. These weapons are engineered in small quantities by the Academy and are not widely available. Thylea boasts a handful of unique cultural weapons, which can be found at just about any blacksmith or adventuring shop. With the exception of the chakram, they function identically to their normal counterparts (unless they are magical).

There are other places where they change/add new descriptors to existing core weapons. For example page 49 of the same players guide:

Vagrant Soldier Despite your roguish demeanor, you have all the training of a common soldier. When you choose this archetype at 3rd level, you gain proficiency with shields. Additionally, spears and tridents count as finesse weapons for you.

If anyone has played this campaign and can prove a definitive ruling on this question – using RAW or other items from the publishers, that would be great.

As usually, it is up to the DMs discretion for a final ruling – this is a known and doesn’t need further mentioning as part of an answer.

Thank you.

Who or what does the lightning damage from a Javelin of Lightning?

This question asks about ways for a Tempest cleric to use their Thunderous Strike class feature.

Thunderous strike says (emphasis mine):

Thunderous Strike. At 6th level, when you deal lightning damage to a Large or smaller creature, you can also push it up to 10 feet away from you.

One answer suggests various magic items, including a wand of lightning bolts and javelin of lightning.

The wand grants you the ability to cast a spell, and your spell means it is you doing the damage.

It is not as clear to me that this is the case with the javelin, however (emphasis mine):

When you hurl it and speak its Command Word, it transforms into a bolt of lightning, forming a line 5 feet wide that extends out from you to a target within 120 feet. Each creature in the line excluding you and the target must make a DC 13 Dexterity saving throw, taking 4d6 lightning damage on a failed save, and half as much damage on a successful one. The lightning bolt turns back into a javelin when it reaches the target. Make a ranged weapon attack against the target. On a hit, the target takes damage from the javelin plus 4d6 lightning damage.

By standard use of "you do damage", the weapon damage from the javelin itself is done by the person who throws it. But if the javelin is transforming itself to cause the lightning damage, is that damage still done by "you" (the thrower) in a way that would trigger Thunderous Strike, or is it rather done by the javelin, and independent of the thrower?

Related: What is damage you do vs. damage a creature takes?

Properties of Javelin Quiver?

One of my players wishes to carry javelins. It seems logical that these could be carried in a quiver (appropriately sized of course) that would reside on the wearer’s back and would serve a similar function as a quiver does for arrows.

We cannot find any reference material for such a thing (how much it would cost, how many javelins it would hold). Is there a place where such a thing is specified?

Can a thrown javelin be catapult-ed back?

The wizard is chased through the woods by a bandit. The bandit is 50 feet behind the wizard and continuously throws javelins at him. The wizard then readies a Catapult spell. The trigger is “after the bandit releases the next javelin”. Of course, the bandit throws another javelin.

Now comes the strange part … do I really have to roll for the bandits attack? Because it seems to me, that no matter if the bandit would hit or miss, the Catapult spell will pluck the javelin from the air and hurl it right back at the bandit.

The trigger is perceivable. The reaction (= casting the Catapult spell) occurs after the trigger (but before the javelin hits?). And the javelin seems to be a valid target for the Catapult spell: its weight is between 1 and 5 pounds, and at the moment when the spell is actually cast, it is neither worn, nor carried.

My players like it, I’m not a fan.

Does this work RAW? Is this an intended use of the Catapult spell?

In 5e, can you draw and or throw a javelin on one or more successive turns while still Using a 2 handed weapon for opportunity attacks?

Assuming you do not have any extra attacks involved, can you start your turn holding a 2 handed weapon, use your free action to draw a javelin, then throw the javelin with your attack and return your hand to your 2 handed weapon for opportunity attacks (such as granted by pole arm master)?

Where does a Javelin of Lightning land when it misses its target?

We were having an “argument” about what happens when the Javelin of Lightning misses its target.

Here’s the important text for the item:

When you hurl it and speak its command word, it transforms into a bolt of lightning, forming a line 5 feet wide that extends out from you to a target within 120 feet. […] The lightning bolt turns back into a javelin when it reaches the target. Make a ranged weapon attack against the target. On a hit, the target takes damage from the javelin plus 4d6 lightning damage.

If you miss the shot with the javelin, does it ever actually reach its target? Or does it continue to be a five-foot corridor of lightning until it hits something? Does it use the momentum of speed-of-light motion to carry itself miles away?

As a note, I feel like the answer is a straightforward “No, it turns into a javelin before you make the ranged check, so it should just fall like a normal javelin.”

However, I seem to be the only one who sees it this way in our group. DMs can determine whatever they want of course, just curious of its behavior as written.

What action is used to throw a javelin of lightning?

When you use a javelin of lightning, exactly what kind of action are you performing? I’d initially assumed it would just be using your entire standard action, but it doesn’t specifically state so. If anything the text suggests it is part of an attack action which means if you have several javelins of lightning and the extra attack class feature you could throw several of them.