## How does \$LL(n)\$ languages compare with \$LR(0)\$, for \$n>0\$?

In the context of languages (not grammars), I know following:

1. $$LL(0) \subset LL(1) \subset LL(2) \subset \cdots \subset LL(k)$$
2. $$LR(0) \subset SLR(1) = LALR(1) = LR(1) = SLR(k) = LALR(k) = LR(k)$$
3. $$LL(0)\subset LR(0)$$
4. $$LL(n)\subset LR(1)$$ for all $$n$$‘s

How does $$LL(n)$$ languages compare with $$LR(0)$$, for $$n>1$$?