Can I transfer SEVIS Information for F1 US Visa, if I have already paid once for a J1 US visa before?

I applied for an F1 US visa sometime back, for which, the biometric information has already been submitted; the interview is also coming up soon. I had previously visited the US for a summer as a J1 summer intern, which had involved paying a SEVIS fee, and thus has a corresponding SEVIS ID. When applying for my F1 visa, I used my old SEVIS ID (from the DS-2019 corresponding to the old J1 visa) by mistake, and the application showed no error. I was wondering which of the following needs to be done by me now:

  1. Request transfer from old SEVIS ID (DS-2019) to new SEVIS ID (I-20)
  2. Pay SEVIS fee for the new SEVIS ID and request the information to be updated in my visa application
  3. Cancel the previous application and start a new application after paying the SEVIS fee

Any help in this regard will be deeply appreciated!

What’s the point of logging in with oauth2 if it’s a paid subscription site?

I understand what oauth2 is and I’ve programmed it in one of our projects. The point was to pull user’s data from an oauth2 provider (facebook, google, etc.) to our application (for example, the user’s 10 most recent emails). It was very handy for that purpose.

Now I’m trying to think about why a web designer would want to include oauth2 as a means of logging into their site. I can see it being useful for a free website. If the user doesn’t want to create their own account with the site, they can simply leverage an already existing account with an oauth2 provider (facebook, google, etc.). They would simply log into the oauth2 provider, get redirected back to the website with the access token, and use that access token to get around the site. So the site essentially “shares” the access token between itself and the oauth2 provider (like saying: so long as you’re logged into facebook, you’re also logged into our site).

But what about a site that requires a paid subscription to log in. In that case, you wouldn’t want the user to log in using some other oauth2 provider. That would allow the user to bypass signing up for a subscription. I guess you could send a request to the oauth2 provider (once you have the access token) for the user’s information, match it with something in the website’s database that indicates the user has signed up for a paid subscription, and if a match is found, proceed with the login. Otherwise, deny access. If access is denied, redirect the user to sign up for a subscription. But is oauth2 login ever used this way?

If oauth2 login is used by sites that required a paid subscription to become a member, how does it work? How does Facebook, for example, know that you’ve signed up for a subscription on a client app’s site and therefore grant you the access token? Or does it work the way I described about?

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Order/Invoice Paid Event

I’m trying to find an event/observer which will fire once an order is paid in Magento (2.2.8).

  • checkout_onepage_controller_success_action – seems limited to frontend orders (ie not called for admin created orders)
  • sales_order_invoice_pay / sales_order_invoice_register – don’t seem to be called for PayPal Express

Ideally I want to try to get something fairly universal which will cover any orders paid. Even better if we knew it was only going to fire once (ie not on sales order save, but worst case can get an order field).

Will I still be charged a cancellation fee from a hotel if I’ve already paid for my night in full?

I booked a night at a hotel on booking.com and have already paid the reservation in full which is £153. I can’t make it anymore due to a family emergency. The booking.com email said that I will have to pay a cancellation fee of £153 paid if there is a no show or I cancel. Does that apply if I have already paid for the hotel? It seems strange to pay the full amount of the hotel as cancellation fees if I have already paid for it.

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UK visa for my green card Filipino wife, do we have to have all accommodations paid for and planned in advance [duplicate]

This question already has an answer here:

  • Why doesn't the UK ask for travel bookings for a tourist visitor visa? 2 answers

We are wanting to travel to UK, specifically Scotland. We only plan to get a hotel for 3 days in Edinburgh and then travel around for 3 weeks and get hotel accommodations as we go without a firm travel structure.

In trying to get a UK visa for my green card Filipino wife, do we have to have all accommodations paid for and planned out in advance? If so that would kill the trip for us.

Thank you so much for trying to help this old man.