I asked this question. The answer is YES.
But I’m still not sure – in such a case (i.e. a trigger for reaction being another reaction) – which reaction is resolved first, the triggered one or the triggering one?
Does the readied action interrupt someone else’s reaction that triggered it? Is there a possibility of a chain of such consecutively triggering and consecutively interrupted reactions?
PC states i am going to use a ready action to cast Produce Flame, and that they want to throw the flame when trigger happens, does the casting happen as a reaction, or do they need to wait their turn to attack as action on a later turn, They produced the flame to see on their turn.
The monster my players were fighting acted first in the intitative order. It dove into the lake and out of sight. They all readied actions to attack when it revealed itself. On its next turn it attacked, triggering all of their readied actions, so it got off its attack, but then they all attacked him. We all got really confused as to whose turn it now was, the monster again or my players. I ruled that it was the monster but now that seems wrong. Did I rule this correctly? How should I be handling this?
I am playing a crossbow expert ranged rogue and trying to maximize my sneak attack capabilities in order to remain competitive with regard to DPR (Paladin and Fighter in the group).
I am wondering if by RAW, I can use the bonus action attack provided by this feat first and then if it is successful, ready my regular attack to trigger on someone else’s turn – essentially allowing me a chance at two sneak attacks within the round.
I am solo-classed, so I don’t have access to Extra attack and not looking to abuse Haste. I am wondering if this is in DM-rule territory or if there is some source I can point to that would allow something like this?
Character A readies an action to
counter a spell if Enemy Wizard casts a spell
Character A is then attacked by Enemy Rogue, and uses an immediate action (like Windy Escape, or in this example, Emergency Force Sphere) to avoid being hit.
Enemy Wizard was also secretly holding a readied action for
if Character A was to cast a spell, as Enemy Wizard knows Character A is also a caster.
So: Character A
readies an action to dispel Enemy Wizard if he casts spell > Enemy Rogue
attacks Character A> Character A
immediate action Emergency Force Sphere> Enemy Wizard’s readied action
dispel Character A if he casts a spell goes off on Emergency Force Sphere > Character A’s readied action
dispel Enemy Wizard if he casts a spellgoes off on Enemy Wizard’s dispel
DM Ruling: Character A can’t use his readied action to dispel Enemy Wizard’s dispel of Character A’s immediate action because a readied action is an immediate action, per:
Immediate Reaction: A readied action is an immediate reaction. It takes place after your enemy completes the action that triggers it. Interrupting an Enemy: If you want to use a readied action to attack before an enemy attacks, you should ready your action in response to the enemy’s movement.
Is this correct? Or what should actually happen here?
I have a scenario that will likely never happen, but I am curious in how it would work.
First, the preliminary, Combining Magical Effects:
The effects of different spells add together while the durations of those spells overlap. The effects of the same spell cast multiple times don’t combine, however. Instead, the most potent effect — such as the highest bonus — from those castings applies while their durations overlap, or the most recent effect applies if the castings are equally potent and their durations overlap.
Now the setup:
Bob the 3nd-level Generic Wizard and Doug the 3rd-level Earth Wizard face off. Bob knows Doug’s favorite tactic and readies a spell. Doug casts Earth Tremor under Bob. The spell say, "You cause a tremor in the ground within range. Each creature other than you in that area must make a Dexterity saving throw."
But Bob was ready and casts Earth Tremor as a 2nd-level spell for his reaction making it more potent (more damage) in the same area.
So what happens?
Doug’s casting means Doug is not targeted by the tremor. But as a reaction Bob casts a more powerful version where Bob is not targeted by the spell. So does that overpower Doug’s spell? And if so, does that mean Bob no longer has to make a Dexterity save and Doug does?
There may be other spells that do this but Earth Tremor was the first I found with wording stating that regardless of the target point, the caster is not affected.
The War Wizard gets the Durable Magic feature at 10th level which states:
[…] While you maintain concentration on a spell, you have a +2 bonus to AC and all saving throws.
The Ready action states:
[…] When the trigger occurs, you can either take your reaction right after the trigger finishes or ignore the trigger. Remember that you can take only one reaction per round.
When you ready a spell, you cast it as normal but hold its energy, which you release with your reaction when the trigger occurs. To be readied, a spell must have a casting time of 1 action, and holding onto the spell’s magic requires concentration. If your concentration is broken, the spell dissipates without taking effect. […]
Thus a War Wizard with a Readied spell would gain bonuses to their AC and saving throws. But what happens if the Wizard chooses to make an opportunity attack or use their reaction on something else? Do they maintain concentration on fire-bolt or do they drop concentration; Do they continue to benefit from Durable Magic or not?
The only thing I was able to find was that the Sage Advice Compendium document (pdf link) states the following (emphasis mine):
Q. I have a readied action. Can I stop readying to take an opportunity attack? Or is ready a full turn commitment?
A. If you have an action readied, you can make an opportunity attack, which causes you to stop readying.
Notably, this only addresses opportunity attacks and doesn’t give any justification, so part of my question is this: Is there support for the conclusion made in the Sage Advice Compendium anywhere in the rulebooks themselves?
The rules for readying spells says the following:
When you ready a spell, you cast it as normal but hold its energy, which you release with your reaction when the trigger occurs.
I saw this argument on reddit today:
The rules say you cast the spell as normal, so the spell takes effect immediately. I have no idea what the energy stuff is about, but it says you cast the spell as normal.
It seems to me like the intention is for the spell to only take effect when the trigger occurs and the caster chooses to activate the spell. I don’t have any doubt that’s how it’s supposed to work.
However I think the reddit user has a point, the whole "energy" thing is a bit ill-defined. Is there a concrete text in the rules that proves that "holding back energy and releasing it" change the timing of a spell being cast?
A Marilith picks up a Longbow to use in combat. It walks to a tower window overlooking a large battle with many creatures. It takes the Ready Action with a trigger of "when a creature moves or attacks, I will shoot it".
Mariliths can take a reaction on every turn of combat.
Does the Marilith get to shoot every creature on the battlefield before its next turn?
When playing as a spellcaster, is it valid the use of the Ready action to prepare Dispel Magic to counter a spell cast by an opponent? In the same vein, when declaring said action, do I have to specify which spell slot I will use when Readying the Dispel Magic spell? If that is the case, does this tactic nullify an opponent’s spell?
I get the impression that this is basically turning Dispel Magic into a spell with a casting time of "1 reaction". Is my reading of the rules accurate?