[ Politics ] Open Question : When will the political double standard ever end?

The liberals can get away with saying anything racist or sexist as much as they want with no consequences (for example, The View, most notably Joy Behar) while a conservative’s comment that’s not even remotely racist gets taken out of context and ruins their career (most notably Roseanne) And just today, I heard Joy Behar admitted on The View that she wore blackface at a Halloween party years ago, but nobody is even doing anything about it!!! Hmmm…I wonder why…..

Standard visitor visa for plab2 exam [duplicate]

This question already has an answer here:

  • UK visa refusal on V 4.2 a + c (and sometimes 'e') 1 answer

I’m wondering if my friend who is a British citizen can be my sponsor for the trip. I’m a working doctor and I live with my family members my two sisters and the their siblings who are 3.both my sisters are divorced and I’m supporting my family financially. I have a regular job but I’m not able to save for the trip. I managed to pay the fees for plab2 and the plane ticket. My friend will provide the accommodation for me and he will take care of my all dialy expenses for the intended period which is 30 days. We are close friend. We went to the same university and spent most of the time together and I have visited and stayed with him regulary in our home country. We have shared memories together and pictures. Do I have any chance of being granted the visa

UK standard Visa – bank statement type, proof of vacation reqest

I am super thankful to you guy for helping.

So, I want to go with my boyfriend to London and he will be paying for the trip mostly (9 days). We want to show them his savings account (bank statement). Is this possible or it has to be the bank statement from the account you get salary om? I have a permanent contract and pay slips but my paycheck is not even medium amount. And so, does having an approved vacation proof is very very important?

Thank you!!!


Load balancing Availability groups with MSSQL Standard

So i have the current scenario, and it looks to be working fantastically, but i just want to get some input on the configuration. Is it smart? Are there any issues i am not thinking of?

We have MSSQL Standard, and as such, you can only have 1 DB per AG (we have 20 databases), and no Read-Only secondaries. Basically meaning, the primary server is doing ALL the lifting, with the secondary doing alot less. So essentially, you are paying for resources for Node 2, that are sitting at 10% workload, while node 1 is at 70/80% workload. Both nodes are fully licensed with regards to MSSQL Cores.

What i have done, to assist this, is slit the database primaries up. So about 50% of the databases are Primary on node1, while the other 50% are primary on node2.

The Results :

The applications all connect great to either node via their respective listener If a failover occurs, just the databases on the failing node are effected, and failover to the other node (We have tested this fairly well).

Each node, can now split the load, essentially load balancing. It is a manual process to set it up this way and when deploying new DB’s and groups they go to the lighter node. but a small price to pay for “more” hardware punch without much cost (Licenses which we already have and a bit of admin)

What are your guys thoughts on this?

Any reason Magento2 decided against using one of the standard config file formats?

Any reason Magento2 decided against using one of the standard config file formats? Did the rest of the world get this so wrong?

I love how they decided to use plenty of XML in their framework, but decided they shouldn’t use it for the actual environment configuration. I ask because if we should all be using plain code, so that we can keep all those pesky automation away, or… wait, that’s incredibly stupid.

So what possible reason do Magento 2 core developers have, for this additional example of genius?

Unbalanced Panel Data Fixed Effects Model with Instruments and Robust or Clustered standard errors

I’m an undergraduate with very little experience in R and Econometrics, so forgive me if I mix-up my terms a little bit.

So far, I have gathered an unbalanced panel data set that contains student attainment data from IPEDS and Labor Force stats from American Fact Finder. I’m trying to run a 2SLS model in R and I’m having a rough time.

My question: Is there a way to run a fixed effects model with one instrument and clustered or robust error terms in R? I have been using the ivreg function for the 2SLS regressions and that has been working; however, because I have tried to include so many fixed effects with the factor(x) command, I keep getting error messages from R when I try to include some of my independent variables. I explored the plm package a little bit and I keep getting errors because my panel is unbalanced.

Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

Is using Doomspeak a standard action?

Doomspeak is a [bardic] feat from Champions of Ruin with the following benefit:

You can spend one of your bardic music uses to utter a string of crass and appalling epithets and curses at one enemy within 120 feet. The intended target must be able to hear and comprehend your damning remarks. A target that fails a Will save (DC 10 + your character level + your Cha modifier) is cursed with a -10 penalty on attack rolls, saves, ability checks, and skill checks for 1 round. This is a supernatural, necromantic effect.

But do you use a standard action to activate it like bardic music, or is it a free action because it’s based on speaking? It consumes a use of bardic music, but like Haunting Melody I believe that it isn’t bardic music itself, and would thus be a free action, ‘piggybacking’ on the insults you are hurling as a free action. On the other hand, it’s a “supernatural effect”, so does that make it a (Su) ability and thus a standard action by default?

As a side note, does Dragonsong work with Doomspeak?