Can my druid character use "heat metal" against a "wand of lightning bolts" to make it damage the caster unless it is dropped, or potentially even damage the wand itself (melt solder or metal-contacting thermosetting adhesives)?
Here is a link describing the wand:
It says that the wand makes an effect like the spell "lighting bolt".
Here is the description for lightning bolt: https://www.dndbeyond.com/spells/lightning-bolt
Here are other lightning-related magic items that might give hints about the construction:
The material components are "a bit of fur and a rod of amber, crystal, or glass".
- The wand is potentially likely to connect some part of the material component to a handle, and in jewelry many gem-holding elements are soldered grips with metal. Heat metal might hit the solder and damage the wand causing a magical discharge in that case.
- If the components are organic, like a glue or plant-based adhesive with a wooden handle, then heat metal might be totally ineffective.
I did not see any questions along this line on this forum.
I’ve been playing 5e for about a year now and recently started my own campaign DMing for a group of people that have never played before. They took to it immediately! Things have been going pretty well so far and we’ve been having a great time.
Our group’s warlock recently found a Wand of the War Mage +1. He’d like to find a high level wizard who can help him inlay it into a dagger (or, for those more flavour text oriented, a black kris blade). The goal being to then have a functioning dagger that gives a +1 to spell attack rolls. It would still be primarily a spellcasting focus, but would additionally give him a little bit of melee should he be caught in close range and not able to escape (he is a pure caster and not a bladelock so will be doing his best to avoid direct combat most of the time).
I asked my former DM (a very much RAW kind of guy) and he said NO. He didn’t really have a good explanation as to why though. I am, however, leaning in the opposite direction, If he’s willing to part with his gold I see no reason not to let this happen. Still, is there support for or against this decision?
I don’t yet have all the materials myself and was wondering if there is anything outright stated about this type of crafting (inlaying) in RAW. That being said, I would love to hear more opinions, either for or against, from some more experienced DMs.
One player in my campaign just used the Wand of Wonder and got the effect:
66-69 — You shrink yourself as if you had cast enlarge/reduce on yourself.
Enlarge/reduce has a duration of:
Concentration, up to 1 minute
Does the effect last the full minute, or can you end the effect early?
We ruled that it’s the full minute because the wand is the one that cast the effect so it’s “concentrating”. Is this correct?
One of the possible effects of the wand of wonder magic item is (emphasis mine):
You enlarge the target as if you had cast enlarge/reduce. If the target can’t be affected by the spell, or if you didn’t target a creature, you become the target.
There are multiple possible effects for the wand of wonder that use a similar wording. There are also many possible effects for the wand that say instead that "you cast [spell]".
Mechanically, what are the differences between the two wordings (if any)? What exact aspects of the spellcasting process/effects are different between the two?
Magic exists which can divine the intentions of other creatures toward me.
"Wand of Enemy Detection"
While holding it, you can use an action and expend 1 charge to speak its Command Word. For the next minute, you know the direction of the nearest creature Hostile to you within 60 feet, but not its distance from you. The wand can sense the presence of Hostile creatures that are ethereal, Invisible, disguised, or hidden, as well as those in plain sight.
Arcane Archer: Shadow Arrow (emphasis mine)
You weave illusion magic into your arrow, causing it to occlude your foe’s vision with shadows. The creature hit by the arrow takes an extra 2d6 psychic damage, and it must succeed on a Wisdom saving throw or be unable to see anything farther than 5 feet away until the start of your next turn.
Abilities and Effects do what they say they do. There is no fluff in descriptions. As written, it appears that if I hit a creature with my Shadow Arrow, it does regular arrow damage plus 2d6 psychic damage. In addition, if the creature hit is my foe, it must make a Wisdom save or have its vision occluded.
Suppose I want to determine if an NPC of uncertain loyalty is my foe or not. I hit him with Shadow Arrows. If his vision becomes occluded, he must be my foe. If not, he is either not my foe or he has made his save.
Does the Shadow Arrow really know who is my foe, similar to a wand of enemy detection, or does it assume that anyone I would shoot at must be my foe?
If the latter, could an NPC that was trying to gain my trust volunteer to receive my arrow? Would that affect the result if they were being truthful? Deceptive?
If my DM has me roll critical fails as attacks on allies when I fire into a melee, can I be confident that my shadow arrow will not be able to occlude the vision of anyone friendly to me?
Related: What is the definition of hostile?
What is the difference between "hostile" and "enemy"?
What is considered an enemy for an Orc's Aggressive trait?
The Sorcerer’s metamagic features has the following general rules:
At 3rd level, you gain the ability to twist your spells to suit your needs…You can use only one Metamagic option on a spell when you cast it, unless otherwise noted.
The Empowered Spell metamagic states:
When you roll damage for a spell, you can spend 1 sorcery point to reroll a number of the damage dice up to your Charisma modifier (minimum of one). You must use the new rolls.
The Wand of Magic Missiles states:
While holding it, you can use an action to expend 1 or more of its charges to cast the magic missile spell from it.
My question is does the process of activating the Wand equate to the sorcerer casting the Magic Missile spell and thus it becomes a suitable target spell for enhancement using the Empower Spell metamagic? Or does the casting occur from the wand and not from the sorcerer, thereby rendering the spell invalid for metamagic enhancement?
I am playing a Life Oracle, and I have the enhanced cure revelation which allows my level to be applied to my cure spells instead of using the max given by the spell, so like cure light usually maxes at 1d8+5, but for me at level 8 it maxes at 1d8+8. So my question is: When I craft a cure light wand at maximum bonus can I use the +8 or am I stuck to the +5?
The wand of pyrotechnics is a common magic item in Dragon of Icespire Peak. The text reads as follow:
This wand has 7 charges. While holding it, you can use an action to expend 1 of its charges and create a harmless burst of multicolored light at a point you can see up to 60 feet away. The burst of light is accompanied by a crackling noise that can be heard up to 300 feet away. The light is as bright as a torch flame but lasts only a second.
The wand regains 1d6 + 1 expended charges daily at dawn. If you expend the wand’s last charge, roll a d20. On a 1, the wand erupts in a harmless pyrotechnic display and is destroyed.
If a person under the effects of an invisibility spell uses the wand, would it cause the invisibility spell to end? My assumption is no because it doesn’t count as a spell or an attack.
My follow-up questions is this:
Can an invisible person use other magic wands or items without ending the invisibility spell, so long as the item does not say it counts as casting spell or the item isn’t used to make an attack?
My Sorcerer has a Wand of Lightning Bolt.
While holding it, you can use an action to expend 1 or more of its Charges to cast the Lightning Bolt spell (save DC 15) from it. For 1 charge, you cast the 3rd-level version of the spell.
He asked whether he could use Quick Spell Metamagic to cast the Lightning Bolt as a bonus action.
When you cast a spell that has a casting time of 1 action, you can spend 2 sorcery points to change the casting time to 1 bonus action for this casting.
One the one hand, the item specifically mentions the caster is using his action. On the other, the item also says the caster is casting the spell, so metamagics can apply. My opinion is that specific beats general, and that the Sorcerer cannot do this. The wand could relate to any spell, with longer or shorter casts times and would always require an action. But I wanted to make sure that is RaW.
I am planning to craft a wand of scorching ray for my imp familiar. Currently, I am a level 3 warlock//rogue. Since by the book this is not an item that exists, I wanted to get the accurate price for my DM.
Crafting wand: You can create a wand of any 4th-level or lower spell that you know. Crafting a wand takes one day for each 1,000 gp in its base price. The base price of a wand is its caster level × the spell level × 750 gp. To craft a wand, you must spend 1/25 of this base price in XP and use up raw materials costing one-half of this base price. A newly created wand has 50 charges.
Scorching ray (Sor/Wiz level 2): You blast your enemies with fiery rays. You may fire one ray, plus one additional ray for every four levels beyond 3rd (to a maximum of three rays at 11th level). Each ray requires a ranged touch attack to hit and deals 4d6 points of fire damage. The rays may be fired at the same or different targets, but all bolts must be aimed at targets within 30 feet of each other and fired simultaneously.
Following this, how do I calculate the price of wand of scorching ray for each variant (one ray, two rays, three rays)?