What were the names of the colored bolt spells of old D&D?

I remember hearing from people who played old D&D about a group of spells that were effective at destroying whatever they were aimed at. I think they were called something like black bolt, green bolt, and blue bolt, and they were pretty much the DMs tool for scaring the players… Or the epic players’ tool for scaring the GM. Does anyone know what I’m taking about?

What were the shortcomings of Robinson’s resolution procedure?

Paulson et alii. From LCF to Isabelle/HOL say:

Resolution for first-order logic, complete in principle but frequently disappointing in practice.

I think complete means they can proof any true formula in first-order logic correct. In the Handbook of Automated Reasoning I find:

Resolution is a refutationally complete theorem proving method: a contradiction (i.e., the empty clause) can be deduced from any unsatisfiable set of clauses.

From Wikipedia:

Attempting to prove a satisfiable first-order formula as unsatisfiable may result in a nonterminating computation

Why is that disappointing?

Multiple clients sites were de-indexed from yahoo/bing – what is going on?

In the last few days I have had multiple client sites de-indexed from yahoo/bing and there seems to be no rhyme or reason to it. Some sites were done completely white hat and others were black hat sites with completely different themes, owners and linking strategies done. Has anyone else had their site de-indexed from yahoo/bing recently? If so please post the details here so we can figure out what is going on.

How were play-by-mail quest tournaments judged?

The January 1984 edition of Dragon advertised the "SILVERDAWN Quest Tournament". The ad features a $ 5,000 cash prize. In a previous question I was introduced to the mechanics of play-by-mail games from the period, as well as how D&D tournaments of the time were being judged.

How were these play by mail tournaments being judged?

It seems unlikely that these play-by-mail "quest tournaments" worked like in-person D&D tournaments did. For one thing, D&D tournaments featured teams competing against each other. The SILVERDAWN ad seems to solicit individual participants and doesn’t mention teams. Second, the ad is pretty clear that this is some kind of quest, not just a dungeon crawl. Finally, my impression is the mechanics of play-by-mail mean that the same kind of tactical dungeon crawl competition would be less likely, but I’m not sure.

I’ve tried searching online for information about the SILVERDAWN competition, but the search was confounded by a World of Warcraft quest by the same name.


Related:

How were play by mail games played in the 1980s?

How were Dungeons and Dragons tournaments judged?

Why were Orcs changed from lawful evil in AD&D 2e to chaotic evil by D&D 5e? [closed]

When I played AD&D 1e and 2e Orcs were listed as lawful evil in the Monster Manual. Lawful Evil as their alignment was consistent with other similar races like Goblins, Hobgoblins, and Bugbears. To my surprise the D&D 5e Monster Manual lists Orcs alignment as chaotic evil, with a description of how Orc tribes work. Why was the Orc alignment changed?

Plenty of AD&D 1e and 2e adventures had Orcs as mercenaries which fit the LE willingness to follow orders. Orcs as CE seem unsuited to organization beyond a tribe as they follow only the strong. The AD&D 2e Monster Manual even suggested that trade was possible with Orcs if you had a well defended enough settlement that trade would be easier than conquest.

What is the in-universe explanation for why succubi, who were demons, became “neutral evil fiends” in 5e?

The Forgotten Realms wiki page on succubi tell us (specifically in footnote 1) that in 1e, 2e and 3.Xe1, succubi were chaotic evil demons, but then were retconned to be lawful evil2 devils in 4e and have now just been made into generic neutral evil "fiends" in 5e, presumably in an attempt to avoid contradicting any previous editions’ lore.

Does 5e give any sort of in-universe lore explanation as to why they are now neither devil nor demon? The 5e Monster Manual entry doesn’t really explain that besides briefly mentioning that they "can be found in service to devils, demons, night hags, rakshasas and yugoloths", again presumably to avoid contradicting any previous editions’ lore, but without explaining why this is now the case.

This is the second part, which was split out from another question; see: What is the in-universe explanation for why succubi, who were demons, became devils?


1 Actually, the footnote on the Forgotten Realms wiki page only says 3e, but I know it was still true in 3.5e because of Neverwinter Nights 2, which was a video game based on 3.5e. In this game they were considered demons, which is incidentally my introduction to D&D and why I consider succubi being demons to be what they "should" be.

2 I say "lawful evil", because that’s what a devil’s alignment is, but I’m aware that 4e changed the alignment system, so it might not be so accurate to claim they were "lawful evil" in 4e, but at the very least, in the context of D&D overall, they would have been considered lawful evil all the time they were considered to be devils.

What is the in-universe explanation for why succubi, who were demons, became devils, then became “neutral evil fiends”?

The Forgotten Realms wiki page on succubi tell us (specifically in footnote 1) that in 1e, 2e and 3.Xe1, succubi were chaotic evil demons, but then were retconned to be lawful evil2 devils in 4e and have now just been made into generic neutral evil "fiends" in 5e, presumably in an attempt to avoid contradicting any previous editions’ lore.

Unlike with the Shadar-kai, I believe there was supposed to be some kind of canonical in-universe lore reason as to why these demons became devils. What was that reason? I assume it appears in some 4e material somewhere? I’m only really familiar with 5e material…

Furthermore, does 5e give any sort of in-universe lore explanation as to why they are now neither devil nor demon? The 5e Monster Manual entry doesn’t really explain that besides briefly mentioning that they "can be found in service to devils, demons, night hags, rakshasas and yugoloths", again presumably to avoid contradicting any previous editions’ lore, but without explaining why this is now the case.


1 Actually, the footnote on the Forgotten Realms wiki page only says 3e, but I know it was still true in 3.5e because of Neverwinter Nights 2, which was a video game based on 3.5e. In this game they were considered demons, which is incidentally my introduction to D&D and why I consider succubi being demons to be what they "should" be.

2 I say "lawful evil", because that’s what a devil’s alignment is, but I’m aware that 4e changed the alignment system, so it might not be so accurate to claim they were "lawful evil" in 4e, but at the very least, in the context of D&D overall, they would have been considered lawful evil all the time they were considered to be devils.

Who were the Ancient Baatorians?

Manual of the Planes (2001) says

Though the Nine Hells is governed by devils, some sages believe that the devils commandeered the Nine Hells from a far older, stranger race now simply called ancient baatorians. It’s possible that remnants of this mysterious race still inhabit isolated portions of the Nine Hells. (116)

Further, Malbolge, the sixth layer of the Nine Hells, on the cavern Maggoth Thyg says

Rumors describe ancient places built underneath the slopes of Malbolge. Below the hellish rock and stone, creatures older than the devils themselves—the ancient baatorians—might still roam. (121)

Did Wizards of the Coast ever describe the ancient baatorians, and, if so, what are they?