The answers in the Question: A question about Celerity spells confused me…
Some people claim that immediate actions are resolved in the order they are called wich I agree, except in the case of celerity because it says you can interrupt with it:
The Celerity spell states:
(…)When you cast this spell, you can immediately take a standard action, as if you had readied an action. You can even interrupt another creature’s turn when you cast this spell(…)
Immediate Actions Much like a swift action , an immediate action consumes a very small amount of time, but represents a larger expenditure of effort and energy than a free action . However, unlike a swift action, an immediate action can be performed at any time — even if it’s not your turn. Casting feather fall is an immediate action, since the spell can be cast at any time. Using an immediate action on your turn is the same as using a swift action, and counts as your swift action for that turn. You cannot use another immediate action or a swift action until after your next turn if you have used an immediate action when it is not currently your turn (effectively, using an immediate action before your turn is equivalent to using your swift action for the coming turn). You also cannot use an immediate action if you are flat-footed .
So with this info let’s say a fighter wants to attack you, you have to call your celerity before the attack roll right? If a mage wants to cast a spell, you have to call your celerity before the spell benefits/roll etc. is called (to interrupt them of course), why can’t you do the same while the wizard using celerity (let’s say not on his turn), you could just interrupt his standard action (given by celerity) with celerity?
I’d like a RAW reference if possible (FAQ or pathfinder is acceptable if there’s nothing in 3.X)
Psionic Wizards get a special ability called Thought Form where they become beings of pure psionic energy.
While you are carrying your psionic focus, you can use a bonus action to magically transform your body into pure psionic energy. The transformation lasts for 10 minutes, until you use a bonus action to assume your normal form, or until you are incapacitated or die.
While in thought form, you are a figure of luminous psychic energy, with your psionic focus hovering within. Your form can appear as anything you wish, but it is obviously magical, is the same size as you, and sheds dim light in a 5- foot-radius. Any other equipment you are wearing or carrying transforms with you and melds into your thought form.
- Can you still physically interact with the world in Thought Form? Eg, can you open doors, pick up items, attack with weapons?
- Would you still need to breath? Seems unlikely that you could breath, especially since you can take nearly any form.
- What happens if you are hit with Dispel Magic?
- Is your form fluid, or fixed by whatever you first appeared as?
Psionic Wizards get a special ability called Thought Form where they become beings of pure energy. Part of that ability is Psionic Spellcasting.
When you cast a spell while in thought form, you can cast the spell psionically. If you do so, the spell doesn’t require verbal, somatic, or material components that lack a gold cost.
What does this mean? Functionally, you have an arcane focus as a class feature so material component usually doesn’t matter.
This means you can’t cast spells like Glyph of Warding (200gp dust, consumed) for free. However, can you cast spells that don’t consume the materials like Chromatic Orb (50gp, diamond)?
Otherwise, the “no material component” seems irrelevant as you have your psionic focus already to activate the ability.
Secondly, do you still physically exist in this form? If an enemy leaves your space can you make an op attack with a dagger, for example? How about opening doors, chests, etc?
From new Psionic Wizard subclass: https://media.wizards.com/2019/dnd/downloads/UA-PsychicSoulPsionics.pdf
2nd-level Psionics feature
• When you roll psychic or force damage for any of your wizard spells, you can reroll any of those damage dice that rolls a 1, but you must use the new roll.
Does this work with Shadow Blade damage?
In Curse of Strahd,
I can’t find any indication of what happened to the third seed beyond this info:
Is there any indication from another source of what happened to the seed or is it just an open quest hook for DMs?
I am GMing for a Pathfinder 2e group. A player noticed that cantrips are automatically heightened to half the PC’s level rounded up. They therefore believe that a level 1 wizard casting Ray of Frost should count the spell as “heightened” and therefore deal damage equal to 2d4 + spellcasting modifier.
I believe that cantrips are level 1 spells that have the cantrip trait. Therefore, a level 1 wizard cannot “heighten” the cantrip to gain the extra 1d4 damage.
Ray of Frost: https://2e.aonprd.com/Spells.aspx?ID=245 (CRB 362)
Cantrips: https://2e.aonprd.com/Rules.aspx?ID=275 (CRB 300)
Trait: https://2e.aonprd.com/Traits.aspx (CRB 13)
There are prescription in AL to prevent a transmuter wizard own multiple transmuter’s stone keeping the ones producted by his simulacra and keeping them also in different modules?
When a cleric would write a scroll of a spell that a wizard could cast like Protection from Evil and Good, would the wizard be able to learn the spell from the Cleric scroll?
In D&D versions Original to 3.5, the ability to hit your opponent varies from class to class (i.e. Cleric, Fighter, Rogue, and Wizard). The classes in 5th edition all seem to have the same basic attack adjustments from proficiency at every level (not counting ability score adjustment, skill expertise or racial adjustments).
This seems to be a major departure from previous editions, so I’m not sure if I’m reading it right or missing something major.
Do all character classes really get the same attack adjustments? Is there something in the rules that I am missing? Unless a wizard specifically focuses on using a specific weapon, I would have assumed fighting classes would be inherently better at hitting their target. As far as spell targeting, that makes sense, but not for physical combat.
Just to be clear, I am in no way criticizing the rules. I am just trying to understand how it all fits together.
All classes have proficiency in several simple weapons (Dagger, Dart, Sling, Quarterstaff, and light crossbows). With these weapons, all classes have the same proficiency bonus. I am purposely not considering ability scores to compare against previous edition. In previous editions, even with proficiency, there was a difference in ability to hit between classes.
Is this understanding correct? Is there something else that accounts for the differences, like combat tables or class combat adjustments?
It just seems that there is no basic combat difference between classes, other than ability scores and specialty skills, and I find that surprising enough to think I’m missing something.
In the 5e campaign I’m playing in, my necromancy wizard just got the spell create homunculus (from Xanathar’s Guide to Everything), and one of the features of that spell is:
Whenever you finish a long rest, you can spend up to half your Hit Dice if the homunculus is on the same plane of existence as you. When you do so, roll each die and add your Constitution modifier to it. Your hit point maximum is reduced by the total, and the homunculus’s hit point maximum and current hit points are both increased by it. This process can reduce you to no lower than 1 hit point, and the change to your and the homunculus’s hit points ends when you finish your next long rest. The reduction to your hit point maximum can’t be removed by any means before then, except by the homunculus’s death.
However, the Inured to Undeath feature from the wizard’s School of Necromancy states that my hit point maximum can’t be reduced.
Would this allow me to grant hit points to my homunculus without my necromancer losing hit points, or is it a DM call?